Did Adam And Eve Die The Same Day They Sinned?

When you are out evangelizing for the Lord, it won't take too much time, before you run into an unbeliever, who will point out that there are many inconsistencies. Atheist love to point out perceived errors, within the Bible.

I ran into one recently, that I honestly haven't heard before. This individual pointed out the God said, to Adam and Eve, that they would die the day they ate of the tree of knowledge of good and evil. They didn't. Adam supposedly lived to a thousand years old.

For reference, this is found in Genesis 2:18 and in Genesis 5

Well, my first response was that God didn't tell that to Adam and Eve. He just told Adam, just before creating Eve. That's the first thing she was wrong about and technically Adam only lived to be 930 years old.

I went on the say that the Bible clearly tells us that time, within God's reality and Adam's original reality, is and was different than ours. In the Bible, we are told,

"A Thousands Years In Your Eyes is a day. A previous day as though it passes like a watch in the night."

Psalm 90:4

"Moreover, not this one thing to be hidden from your knowledge, beloved, that with the Lord, one day like a thousand years and a thousand years like a day."

2 Peter 3:8

You see, when Adam and Eve, disobeyed, they were immediately tossed out the Garden's dimensionality. Within the Garden of Eden, only one day had passed, while outside the Garden, around 930 years has passed, exactly what the above Bible verses tell us above. Therefore, Adam did die within the same day, within God's dimensionality, as when he was told of the penalty for disobedience, but it seemed like almost a thousand years, in this reality.

In the end, there are no errors, within the Bible.

Shalom.

Is John 1:14 Mistranslated?

One of the most famous verses, in the Bible, John 1:14 has been debated over the centuries. On one side, the verse has been translated, from the original languages as:

The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

While the other side insists that the verse is translated as:

And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.

One declares the divinity of the Messiah, while the other states that the Messiah was created.

Which one is correct?

Well, the word, in question, is "ginomai". It means "to come into being". It can be an active or passive verb, in the Greek. However, how is it being used here. If we go to the writer, who is the Apostle John, then we find that he used it consistently as an active verb, ocassionally using it as a passive verb. For example, he used the word "ginomai", in John 1:3, in the active voice, while switching to the passive voice, in verse 6, then back to active, in verses 10, 12 and 14.

Translators agree that John used the active voice, every time he talked about the Word of God, except, for some reason, in John 1:14....an so the debate continues.

However, may I suggest that almost every time he talks about the Word of God, he references Genesis 1. If so, why would he change, in verse 14? If you look at Genesis 1, Bara and Asah are the equivalent Hebrew words to the Greek, "Ginomai". Bara and Asah means to create, either out of nothing or available elements.

As a side note, the Hebrew also has "Yatsar", which means to create out of available already created things.

Bottom line: In the Beginning, Bara, Asah and even Yatsar, are used as active verbs. Therefore, it should be translated as such, even in the Greek.

With all that said, it brings us back to the original question. Which one is correct? Is it passive, as most translators insist or active, as portrayed in the Genesis ?

Well, if we use the available tools God has given us, we can easily perform a basic Word for Word translation and find the truth. John 1:14 is translated as:

Even so, the Word created a living creature, a body of a man, subject to suffering and desires and dwelled among us and we beheld his glory. The glory of the only one born of the Father, thoroughly permeated with merciful kindness and what is true in things appertaining to God and the duties of man, moral and religious truth.

Yes, this created man had and has the fullness of God dwelling within him, but also had the frailties and compacity to sin, if he chose to, which makes what he did of the cross, so amazing and wonderful of full of Agape. That man, the only begotten Son of God, was so committed to the Will of God, that he freely went to the Cross, to die as a Sin Offering for us all. Amen!

In the end, it's your choice to decide, whether ginomai is active or passive, in John 1:14. May I suggest reading it in context and with the whole of scripture in mind? 

Search out the Truth, for Yourself.

Shalom!

Is It Pierced Or Is It Wounded? The Rest Of The Story.

The Rabbinic Jews Say:

He Was Wounded Because Of Our Transgressions….

and that this verse can be anyone, including the Nation of Israel.

The Christians Say:

He Was Pierced For Our Trangressions….

and obviously points to Y'shua/Jesus, because he has been the only one pierced and claimed to be the Messiah.

However, both are correct, but neither gives the complete story.

To be honest, this debate has raged from long before English was even a language. It all comes down the original Hebrew word, CHALAL, translated as 'Wounded' by the Rabbinical Jews and as 'Pierced', by English speaking Christians. With that said, a simple look into both a Jewish Lexicon Condcordance and a Christian Lexicon Concordance reveals that the Hebrew word, CHALAL, means to be wounded, as if by being bored through and through. Otherwords, it means Pierced. But, that's not the whole story.

Our account takes us to another debate, which has been going on since the writing of Epistles of Paul, concerning the Gospel of Y'shua/Jesus.

In II Corinthians 5:21 and Galations 3:13, the Apostle Paul started an outcry, resulting in this two thousand year old debate. He stated that Y''shua/Jesus was made sin or a curse for us, so through his punishment upon the cross, so we would be made clean in God's eyes. 

Jews say that it's nowhere in the Tanakh, Old Testament, and that it's just one of the many lies Paul made up, while creating Christianity in his own image.

Most Christians, even supposed scholars, futilely debate this, but can not come up with the exact language and it's location, within the Holy Scriptures, to refute the Jews. Paraphrasing is the common response from the most learned Chrisitian Scholars. Paul was paraphrasing, revealing that most Christian Scholars have gotten bogged down in the English translations, while ignoring the Hebrew at the most basic level. 

How can you say that? 

Because, a further investigation reveals that Paul's exact words were indeed within the pages of the Jewish Scriptures, within the famous Isaiah 53. You guessed it, the same Isaiah 53:5, with which we started off this post. If you look in the same Lexicons, mentioned above, we find out that the primary meaning of the original Hebrew word 'CHALAL' is actually ."allowed himself to be made profane, iniquity, sin"

Therefore, based on the writings of a first century Pharisee, the Apostle Paul and of course the actually meaning of the text, we now know that Isaiah 53:5 goes like this:

He Became Profane/Iniquity/Sin, Through Boring Wounds, For Our Transgressions, 

Allowed Himself To Be Crushed/Smited For Our Depravity And Punished. 

His Wounds/Stripes Brings Peace And Healing. 

Regardless, It Still Points To Y’shua Ha Mashiach. Amen!!!

Shalom!!!